• ℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.social
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    2 years ago

    Take an English class, I’m sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different “degrees” of past tense, did / had done etc.)

    • SpaceNoodle
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      2 years ago

      It’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.

      • TheFriendlyDickhead@lemm.ee
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        2 years ago

        Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense

        • SpaceNoodle
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          2 years ago

          No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.

              • schmidtster
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                2 years ago

                For someone who only posts insulting others and correcting (incorrectly a bunch too….) their grammar, you sure lack any amount of reading comprehension.

                Its always the loudest people who are the most guilty, I appreciate the lengths you go to prove this is still true.

                  • schmidtster
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                    2 years ago

                    I’ve tried just reporting them before. Doesn’t seem to do anything, so sorry for having to point it out. See this person all over Lemmy in lots of communities.

                    And just had an interaction yesterday, so had to see what was new with them. Again, my apologies for bringing this to your attention, wasn’t bringing an argument in.

      • ℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.social
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        2 years ago

        In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.

        • SpaceNoodle
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          2 years ago

          He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.

          • saigot@lemmy.ca
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            2 years ago

            No native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.

            • SpaceNoodle
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              2 years ago

              No native English speaker would say it like you said.